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Did Shakespeare Have Altered Historical Facts

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Changing facts for influence is not new in politics. In the early seventeenth century, William Shakespeare wrote a story about King Macbeth of Scotland in which he altered historical facts about Macbeth. Shakespeare had an agenda to please King James I (historic.co.uk). One could argue that this is the primary reason William Shakespeare altered historical facts to win favor with the king and for political bias. Two integral points will support this view, the first being the facts that Shakespeare changed in the play Macbeth. Originally, one might think that Shakespeare changed facts for the sake of tragedy and drama; however that is not the case. The second point is that Shakespeare was able to introduce tragedy and drama into Julius Caesar’s story without distorting the historical facts. This will directly disprove that he did it for the sake of tragedy and drama and leaves an agenda as the only standing reason for altering history. Shakespeare changed crucial facts to the integrity of Macbeth’s reign. Shakespeare used the Holinshed texts as a source for a large amount of his story (Black). In the Holinshed text there is a …show more content…

His agenda behind altering history was to win favor with King James I. Queen Elizabeth died in 1603, at which point King James a distant relative took the throne (BBC.co.uk). Many disliked King James, because they believed closer relatives should have taken the throne (BBC.co.uk). In order to strengthen his reign, King James commissioned Shakespeare to write Macbeth via a writing company called the King’s men (BBC.co.uk). In this commissioned work Shakespeare altered history in order to appeal to King James’s Stuart lineage. Shakespeare’s ambition was not for tragedy or drama, because these aspects are visible in the play Julius Caesar, which was historically accurate. These alterations of history were able to influence the minds of King James’s citizens and secure his

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