Explain Why Did Chamberlain Followed A Policy Of Appeasement

936 Words4 Pages
The first reason why Chamberlain followed a policy of appeasement was because Britain was too weak physically, psychologically, and economically. When the First World War ended in 1918, Britain did not have the military forces ready to commit themselves to another war a mere 19 years later in 1937. A part of this reason is because the Treaty of Versailles among other things, had Germany undergo a complete military disarmament, however, all the remaining countries were hesitant to do so as well which resulted in a general military disarming, leaving Britain with little to equip themselves with. Another reason is that Britain did not have the manpower or the resolution to commit themselves to another war after the one they had just completed. Furthermore, after the First World War, Britain was in a poor economic state due to their great spending during the war leading them into debt, which was by no means improved with the…show more content…
As previously mentioned, Britain did not have the military power required to defend and attack in war on two fronts. Now, post World War One, many nations signed off as independent countries from Britain. A positive factor about that was that Britain did not have to oversee as many colonies and had less area to then protect from opposing forces. However, in a negative point of view, these former colonies did bring Britain more money and natural resources so it was a shame to lose those attributes. Britain also had little allies that wanted to engage in war alongside them at that time, for they too were returning from war and were undergoing the effects of The Great Depression. That being said, France did not want to fight Germany and Britain could not do it alone. France after the First World War, was politically divided with only a ‘static defence’ along the
Open Document