How Did America Join World War One?

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“I believe that this war is a challenge for our time and for each individual, a test by fire that we may ripen into manhood, become men able to cope with the coming stupendous years and events.” This was said by a German volunteer before he headed for the front lines in the First World War (McKay, Hill and Buckler 830). In his mind, war was something honorable. In fact, the war was a rite of passage required for become truly considered a man. How bitter the irony that so many men went into that war and so few returned. The difference in attitudes towards war changed drastically over the course of the combat. Given the tragedies that occurred and the massive casualty count, an entire generation of European men gone. It should be expected that …show more content…

We only joined the war directly in the end, ironically, because Germany attempted to force us out of it completely. We had been supplying the Allied forces for years but we only joined the fight at the last minute. A war on another continent, one that America joined only a couple of years before it ended. In many ways America was one of the counties that was the least effected by the tragedies of World War I. As such, considering we also did not get pulled into World War I because of a treaty or any outstanding feud, it would be expected that the USA’s President would have such a drastically different view of things than the leaders who were in Europe fighting from the beginning. However, in Europe the treaties might not have been as influential in the decision as other things at the time. It is an important distinction to make that Germany initiate the conflict with France, which is important because of the terms of the treaty between England and France. The treaty was defensive in nature where the other would help to defend the country that got attacked by another. As France attacked first, Britain would have fully been in the right to not rush to France’s aid. This illustrates how while treaties can give a reason to rush to the aid of another country, intent is many times more …show more content…

It was through a German scheme that he came into power. Germany had been tired from the constant losses from fighting a war on two sides, with one getting supplies from the USA. So Germany devised two plans, one was to recruit Mexico to declare war on the United States. The other was to send Vladimir Lenin into Russia to stage a communist revolution. While the former failed horribly, the latter succeeded. What this means for his theory is that he was not the leader of Russia who led it to war, and thus his opinions of the cause were less influenced by public opinion. The two reasons he gave for World War 1 were imperialistic desires and old European enmities. Given the tendencies of imperialism to be about wealth and resources, it would be very in line with communism to defame it. Though imperialism could be said to be a major influence on the decision making of the various countries. Had Germany not been a direct competitor with Britain as another empire, perhaps they might have been less willing to aid France. To the Great powers of Europe, Imperialism and overseas colonies were extremely important to the power of their nation. In fact, one German historian, Heinrich von Treitschke, said that “… all great nations in the fullness of their strength have desired to set their mark upon barbarian lands and those who fail to participate in this great rivalry will play a pitiable

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