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Middle Ages DBQ

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Was the Time Period Between 400 and 1400 AD a “Dark Age” for Europe? Overall Claim: The Middle Ages not a Dark Age in Europe. The first reason the Middle Ages period was not a Dark Age was because the educational system improved. Richer the monk stated in his article “Journey to Chartres” (Document E) about how he was going to study with a great scholar named “Heribrand, a highly cultured and scholarly man.” Richer stated that he had learned “symptoms of diseases and picked up a surface knowledge of ailments” and was to learn “pharmaceutics, botany, and surgery.” In Document F, Wikipedia states that many places of knowledge had emerged and a new system of education was introduced that would be “eventually replacing the monastery and church schools.” Wikipedia tells about …show more content…

Clearly, the places of schooling created by the Europeans, shows their new advanced way of education. They have stopped using churches as schools, and have created buildings and places set aside for education, like shown in Document E and F. Also, because Richer was able to interact with Heribrand, collective learning had taken place in the topics mentioned in the article, pharmaceutics, botany, and surgery. Cities in the Islamic Empire, such as Cordoba and Baghdad were great places of communication of top scholars. In these places, national problems would be solved, historical sciences would be built upon, and new achievements were made. Many discoveries were made such as longbow, gunpowder, water mills, windmills, and new

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