War Of The Roses Research Paper

How far do you agree that the Wars of the Roses were little more than the violent escalation of private feuds? [20 marks]

Political tension had been high in England since the usurpation of Richard II by Henry Bolingbroke in 1399, however these tensions didn’t come to a head until the beginning of the Wars of the Roses in the 1450’s. During this time, it was common for local disputes to escalate to a more national level, due to the ineptness of King Henry VI, however this is not to say that the Wars of the Roses was simply an escalation of private feuds, but rather the result of raising political tensions on a national level due to the illness of Henry VI, and the nobility around him during this time, and foreign policy, notably the end of

Henry VI, unlike his father, was unable to gain large successes in France instead losing all territories except Calais. This is what caused Henry’s later mental breakdown in 1453, in effect starting the Wars of the Roses, as Richard, Duke of York and Margaret of Anjou vying over the role of protectorate. This was the first major division between the Yorkist and Lancastrian houses, and subsequently, had a huge effect on the politics of the time, with leading nobles appearing at parliament armed, to discuss who should rule during the period of the king’s illness.

Henry’s monumental losses in Calais also meant parliament was no longer as ready to allow the king to collect extra taxes for military purposes, and this would have caused tensions between the crown and nobles, leaving Henry VI with only weak authority, This would have led to the increased escalation of both local and national violence, as law and order broke down during Henry’s reign. Overall, however, this could be put down more to national politics, and the dissolution of nobles with Henry VI, rather than due to his foreign policy and land losses, which wouldn’t have affected English nobles